“The word aseity is from the Latin “a se” meaning “from oneself.” This is not to say that God is “self-made,” or that He created Himself, but it relates to God’s self-sufficiency…. We need to be reminded of God’s aseity because we are often guilty of using our own characteristics and experiences as the template for understanding the attributes of God.” - Ref21
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NewOn the other hand
Mark 11:1 And when they came nigh to Jerusalem, unto Bethphage and Bethany, at the mount of Olives, he sendeth forth two of his disciples, 2 And saith unto them, Go your way into the village over against you: and as soon as ye be entered into it, ye shall find a colt tied, whereon never man sat; loose him, and bring him. 3 And if any man say unto you, Why do ye this? say ye that the Lord hath need of him; and straightway he will send him hither.
NewRajeshG wrote:
This sounds like something the Unitarians or JWs would say. I know that’s not what you believe, but I’m not sure why you feel it speaks to the issue of God’s aseity. Since Jesus became a man, he placed himself in the position of need, but that is unrelated to divine aseity.
Newpvawter wrote:
Although it does not speak to divine aseity concerning God the Father or the God the Spirit, because of the Incarnation, it does reveal at least one time and thing that the Bible says that the God-Man needed something.
NewRajeshG wrote:
So in your view is divine aseity an errant doctrine in light of the incarnation? Is Jesus forever needy now that he is incarnate?
Newpvawter wrote:
NewIt is a category error to
It is a category error to compare Jesus’ humanity in the incarnation with the eternal nature of God as though his “needs” while here on earth have anything to do with the question of aseity. The text you reference is not relevant to the doctrine of divine aseity. God is not a dependent being, and the incarnation does not change or threaten that in any way.
Newpvawter wrote:
NewI tell you what, before we go
I tell you what, before we go down the rabbit hole of endlessly wrangling over the intricacies of Christology, can you just explain why you think Mark 11:3 has relevance to the doctrine of aseity?
Newpvawter wrote:
NewRajeshG wrote: